Iran Military Forum

Wearing clothing specific to non-Muslims, is forbidden.

lolwut

when a muslim wears something, it is by default no longer specific to non-muslims.
unless they can't be muslim while wearing it.
but i don't see any indication in the Koran about whether ties are OK.

The general narrative is that a Muslim should not associate/dress with/like Kafirs. This is because they adhere to other dimensions of logic, inherent values, morals and ethics. Hence the idea that it is an "Iranian" response: Islamic movements in general, Sunni and Shia reject the tie. In addition, the "analysis' that Shia Islam is somehow strongly interwoven with Iranian values etc. and that this somehow triggers reaction to modern realities and portrayed an "Iranian" stance is also wrong.

Your logic makes a number of errors.

1. Scientific exchanges have nothing to do with this topic. Gunpowder is not relevant.
2. The republic does not concern Iran. Iran is a "Jomhuriye Eslami" taken from Islamic technical texts, roughly translated into Islamic Republic to make foreigners, or simply dumb people understand what the political structure could encompass.
3. Islam was not influenced by 'persians' or 'arabs' since there was no such uniform identity as we know today. Both of these civilizations were barely any more advanced than the other. Iran was a feudal society with a minority of aristocratic Sassanian rulers who prefered warfare over scientific achievements. Just because Arabs were even worse off, killing their daughters does not make one better than the other. To make the suggestion that Islam was "heavily" influenced by pre-islamic innovations is to deny their regressive postures.

In Islam, cultures can be sustained, only if they are acceptable by Islam. In pre-Islamic Arabia, many things were done in their culture deemed Haram, and thus had to be abandoned, no matter how dear that culture was for them. As Rumi himself said: Speak Persian, but Arabic is sweeter. Like today, "Persians" and "Arabs" did not have a sense of being two seperate entities, divided and at war with each other, these words and their meanings did not even exist in the way we know them today. These peoples of different tribes who all migrated to the middle east appreciated each others culture, and borrowed extensively, but consistently after Islam since this was the 'breathing space' for what was to be a 400 year golden age.

Aside from that, Shari'a does not depend on Quran alone. There is no such thing as an exclusive "Quranic law" nor is this practical.

There aren't any human exempt from salvation if he should follow the guidelines set fourth in the Holy Books properly.

How does the above conflict with the notion of ancient Iranian culture being obsolete?

Look at how critical Islam is of jahiliyah Arab culture. How can you expect it not to apply that same criticism to other cultures?